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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 02:29

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

I’ve often wondered why fans aren’t deployed on GBBO during warm weather? I’ve seen too many desserts melt (and bakers too…). (I live in Pompano Beach and we try to use fans in lieu of AC as much as possible).

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

I broke up with my boyfriend because he wasn’t transparent about his past, it hurts me and he doesn’t care. I told him in the beginning of our relationship that it was a deal breaker for me what do I do?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Have you ever seen your wife being fucked?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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